1. While the news coming from the colonies were rarely positive, hoped remained that the settlers would overcome their health problems and establish a prosperous community.

 

(A)     were rarely positive, hoped remained that the settlers would overcome      

(B)     was rarely positive, hoped remained that the settlers would overcome

(C)     were rarely positive, hoped remained for the settlers to overcome

(D)     was rarely positive, hope would remain that the settlers overcame      

(E)     was rarely positive, hope would remain for the settlers in overcoming

2. A proud drunk and self-proclaimed recluse, Charles Bukowski's works were some of the most influential to be found in the Los Angeles counter-culture literary movement of the sixties.

 

(A)     Charles Bukowski's works were some of the most influential to be found in  

(B)     many feel Charles Bukowski wrote some of the most influential works from

(C)    the books of Charles Bukowski stand out as some of the most influential works of

(D)    Charles Bukowski is considered to be one of the writers most influential from  

(E)     Charles Bukowski is considered one of the most influential writers of

3. There is little doubt that European courts have been taking a much harsher line with football hooligans in recent times; their punishments intend to deter and they have.

 

(A)     intend to deter and they have    

(B)     intend to deter and they do

(C)    are intending to deter and they are

(D)    are intended to deter and they do    

(E)    are intended to deter and they have

Questions 4 and 5 refer to the following:

Most of the world's rain forests are found in countries considered to be economically under-developed. Scientists believe that Deforestation accounts for about 20% of the greenhouse gas emissions resulting from human activities. Farmland is many times more profitable than forest land. Therefore developed countries should financially compensate under-developed countries in order to prevent forest land being turned into farmland.

4. The argument above relies on which of the following assumptions?

 

(A)     That there are no alternative means to combat greenhouse gas emissions.    

(B)     That the value of farmland will not decrease in the future.

(C)     That the money received will be spent on preserving the forests.

(D)     That the value of the timber is not the main driver of deforestation.    

(E)     That under-developed countries are the ones most responsible for the emission of greenhouse gases.

5. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

 

(A)     Deforestation actually only accounts for 15% of the greenhouse gas emissions resulting from human activities.    

(B)     The developed countries have previously deforested over 75% of their own terrain and converted it to farmland.

(C)     It is not clear on what basis the level of contribution by each developed country will be determined.

(D)     The developed countries emit a far greater quantity of greenhouse gases than the under-developed ones.    

(E)     Many under-developed countries do not have the means to protect their forests, and often do not know who legally owns the trees.

6. Despite the grey squirrel, with much of the habitat overtaken by its North American cousin, the British red squirrel still inhabits the remoter parts of the British Isles, such as northern Scotland.

 

(A)     Despite the grey squirrel, with much of the habitat overtaken by its North American cousin,

(B)     Despite the overtaking by the grey squirrel of much of its habitat, its North American cousin,

(C)     Despite having much of its habitat overtaken by its North American cousin, the grey squirrel,

(D)    Although much habitat has been overtaken by its North American cousin, the grey squirrel,

(E)     Although the grey squirrel, its North American cousin, taking over much of its habitat,

7. The electric company was criticized for the increase in energy prices, the failure to overhaul their outmoded coal-powered generators and because it didn't invest in renewable energy sources.

 

(A)     the failure to overhaul their outmoded coal-powered generators and because it didn't invest

(B)     the failure to overhaul its outmoded coal-powered generators and the lack of investment

(C)     not overhauling their outmoded coal-powered generators and not investing

(D)    not overhauling its outmoded coal-powered generators and for its failure to invest

(E)     for its failure to overhaul outmoded coal-powered generators and for it didn't invest

Questions 8 through 12 refer to the following passage:

Perhaps one of the most cited and controversial cases at the heart of what many see as a cultural war between the forces of America's political Left and Right is Roe v. Wade, a landmark decree issued by the United States Supreme Court in 1973 ruling on the constitutionality of laws that criminalized or restricted access to abortions. The Court ruled that a right to privacy under the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment extends to a woman's decision to have an abortion, but that this right must be balanced against the state's interests in regulating abortions: protecting women's health and protecting the potentiality of human life. Arguing that these state interests became stronger over the course of a pregnancy, the Court introduced a balancing test, tying state regulation of abortion to the third trimester of pregnancy.

Later, in Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992), the Court rejected Roe's trimester framework while affirming its central holding that a woman has a right to abortion until fetal viability. The Roe decision defined "viable" as "potentially able to live outside the mother's womb, albeit with artificial aid." Justices in Casey acknowledged that viability may occur at 23 or 24 weeks, or sometimes even earlier, in light of medical advances.

In disallowing many state and federal restrictions on abortion in the United States, Roe v. Wade prompted a national debate that continues today about issues including whether, and to what extent, abortion should be legal, who should decide the legality of abortion, what methods the Supreme Court should use in constitutional adjudication, and what the role should be of religious and moral views in the political sphere. Roe v. Wade reshaped national politics, dividing much of the United States into pro-life and pro-choice camps, while activating grassroots movements on both sides.

8. In the passage above, the author is primarily concerned with:

 

(A)     identifying the root causes of an ongoing controversy

(B)     outlining the criteria for legal abortions in the United States

(C)     describing a court ruling that is central to an ongoing cultural conflict

(D)    showing how one supreme court decision can have a profound impact on all aspects of American life

(E)     illustrating how the Supreme Court influences American politics

9. The passage states that each of the following factors may influence whether a woman may legally have an abortion, EXCEPT:

 

(A)     The woman's health

(B)     The length of time a woman has been pregnant

(C)     The likelihood the fetus will survive birth

(D)    The wishes of the father

(E)     The State's need to regulate abortion

10. The passage suggests that the court's main criteria in reaching its decision in the Roe case was:

 

(A)     A woman's right to choose

(B)     A woman's ownership of her own body

(C)     A woman's freedom to follow her religion

(D)    A woman's right to justice

(E)     A woman's right to privacy

11. The passage implies that the Roe v Wade case:

 

(A)     Has raised questions about how the Supreme Court should interpret the US Constitution

(B)     Is the most important decision the Supreme Court has made

(C)     Was more influential than the Casey case that followed

(D)    Lifted all state and federal restrictions on abortion

(E)     Made it clear that religious views play no part in constitutional decisions

12. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements about Roe v Wade:

 

(A)     It was an important case that has reinforced the power of the Supreme Court

(B)     It was a pivotal case that has continued to shape US politics

(C)     It was a controversial case that interpreted the US Constitution incorrectly

(D)    It was only one of a number of cases that have called into question the validity of using the US Constitution to interpret what are essentially political decisions

(E)     It should not be used as a precedent in ruling on abortion related cases in the future

13. Being bigger, having longer ears, and less sociable than rabbits, hares prefer to remain above ground instead of burrow, and are also different species.

 

(A)     Being bigger, having longer ears, and less sociable than rabbits, hares prefer to remain above ground instead of burrow, and are also different species.

(B)     Hares are bigger, with longer ears and less sociable than rabbits, preferring to remain above ground and being different species.

(C)     Bigger, with longer ears, and less social than the rabbit, the hare is also a different species, preferring to remain above ground rather than burrow.

(D)    A different species to the rabbit, hares are bigger, less social, longer-eared and prefers to remain above ground instead of to burrow.

(E)     Rather than to burrow, the hare prefers to remain above ground; it being different to the rabbit in its being bigger, longer ears, and less social.

14. Gnatford City Council has identified that there has been a net annual outflow of residents from the city to live in neighboring Midgeville, where property taxes are 2% lower. To counter this migration and the loss of tax revenue, the Council is proposing to reduce property taxes in Gnatford to be in line with Midgeville.

    Which of the following casts the most doubt on the success of the council's plan?

 

(A)     Both Gnatford and Midgeville's city councils had a budget shortfall last year.

(B)     The residents of Gnatford were predominantly born in the city, whereas the residents of Midgeville were generally born in cities other than Midgeville.

(C)     Taxes on small businesses are lower in Gnatford than in Midgeville.

(D)    Property taxes in Gnatford are already lower than the national average for cities of comparable size.

(E)     Midgeville is developing a popular bohemian district with lots of new bars and restaurants.

15. Following a year of weak sales, Company X has decided to double its advertising spend for the coming year. They feel confident that this will increase the company's pre-tax profits.

    Which of the following most calls into question the company's strategy of increasing advertising?

 

(A)     Rival companies have decided not to increase their advertising budgets this year.

(B)     The company is launching a new product range that wasn't included in last year's advertising campaigns.

(C)     The government has raised taxes on sales of the products that Company X produces.

(D)    Following a strike at Company X's main supplier, the cost of the main component in Company X's products has doubled

(E)     Company X is considering buying a rival company in order to boost its market share.

16. A recent study has found a correlation between people who smoke and loss of hearing, particularly in later life.

    Which of the following, if true, best supports the conclusion that smoking causes a loss of hearing?

 

(A)     People who smoke, are frequently forced to smoke outside, and sometimes there is a lot of noise, such as on the street.

(B)     There is a strong correlation between smoking and listening to loud rock music.

(C)     Smoking is associated with a wide range of health problems, such as high blood pressure, heart disease and lung cancer.

(D)    Smoking causes a disruption to the blood flow around the body, leading to a build-up of toxins in the ear.

(E)     Smoking suppresses the appetite which leads to a reduction in blood sugar and lowers the metabolism. The human body's metabolism also naturally reduces with age.

17. Written in 1873, Jules Verne wrote Around the World in Eighty Days, which describes the fictitious character Phileas Fogg's adventures in attempting to circumnavigate the world for a wager of £20,000.

 

(A)     Written in 1873, Jules Verne wrote Around the World in Eighty Days, which describes the fictitious character Phileas Fogg's adventures in attempting

(B)     Written in 1873 was Jules Verne's Around the World in Eighty Days, describing the fictitious character of Phileas Fogg, who attempted

(C)     Written in 1873, Jules Verne's Around the World in Eighty Days describes the adventures of fictitious character Phileas Fogg, who attempts

(D)    Jules Verne wrote Around the World in Eighty Days in 1873, and it describes the adventures of fictitious character, Phileas Fogg, attempting

(E)     Jules Verne, in 1873, wrote Around the World in Eighty Days, in which is described the adventures of fictitious character, Phileas Fogg, who attempted

18. Not only has the Central Bank raised the base lending rate but indicated that markets might expect further raises in the coming months.

 

(A)     Not only has the Central Bank raised the base lending rate but indicated that markets might expect further raises

(B)     Not only has the Central Bank raised the base lending it also indicated that markets can expect further rises

(C)     The Central Bank has not only raised the base lending rate but the expectations in the market for further raises

(D)    The Central Bank has raised not only the base lending rate but market expectations for further raises

(E)     The Central Bank has not only raised the base lending rate but also indicated that markets can expect further rises

19. Orange farmers in Florida have noticed a gradual fall in their crop yields over the last few years. The most recent harvest has yielded 25% fewer oranges per hectare than were produced ten years ago.

    All of the following, if true, would offer possible explanations for the reduction in the yield for oranges EXCEPT:

 

(A)     Global warming has caused the orange trees in the region to bloom unusually early, making them susceptible to a late frost, which harms the trees and reduces crop yield.

(B)     The rise of an invasive wasp species in the area has meant that an increasing percentage of the crop is being spoiled.

(C)     Excessive soil leaching has reduced the nutrients available to the orange trees and stunted the growth of new trees.

(D)    Changes to the rainfall pattern have reduced the level of the water table in the region, reducing the amount of water available to the orange groves.

(E)     Reduction in the amount of sunshine the region receives has meant that the orange crop matures later and is not as sweet as it used to be.

20. While no water is visible on the surface of the planet Mars, recent pictures suggest that some of the terrain features may have been formed by large quantities of water eroding the surface of the planet. This has led some scientists to conclude that the planet may contain water trapped beneath the surface, and that it therefore may harbor primitive life-forms such as bacteria.

    Which of the following, if true, offers the greatest reason to doubt the scientists' conclusion that the planet contains life?

 

(A)     The temperature on the planet is so low that the liquid eroding the surface of the planet could as easily have been liquid nitrogen.

(B)     No water is observable on the surface of the planet currently.

(C)     Not all life-forms require water to survive.

(D)    The soil on the surface of the planet contains a substance that is highly toxic to humans and that would likely make it difficult for most life forms found on Earth to survive.

(E)     To survive on Earth, most bacteria require oxygen in far higher quantities than is present on the planet Mars.

21. Osmosis, the spontaneous net movement of solvent molecules through a semi-permeable membrane into a region of higher solute concentration, is the mechanism by which plant roots draw water from the soil.

 

(A)     Osmosis, the spontaneous net movement of solvent molecules through a semi-permeable membrane into a region of higher solute concentration, is

(B)     Osmosis, which is the net movement through a semi-permeable membrane by spontaneous solvent molecules to a region of higher solute concentration, is

(C)     Osmosis, being spontaneous and the net movement of solvent molecules to a region of higher solute concentration via a semi-permeable membrane, is

(D)    Osmosis is the net movement spontaneously through a semi-permeable membrane by solvent molecules to a region of higher solute concentration, and

(E)     Osmosis is the net spontaneous movement, through a semi-permeable membrane, of solvent molecules to a higher region, as well as

22. The indigenous Indian tribe known as the Guarani is distinguished from the Tupi tribe through its use of the Guarani language, their traditional habitat, which has ranged from Argentina in the south to Rio de Janeiro in the north and the Tupi have cannibalistic tendencies.

 

(A)     The indigenous Indian tribe known as the Guarani is distinguished from the Tupi tribe through its use of the Guarani language, their traditional habitat, which has ranged from Argentina in the south to Rio de Janeiro in the north and the Tupi have cannibalistic tendencies.

(B)     The indigenous Indian tribe known as the Guarani is distinguished from the Tupi tribe through its use of the Guarani language, its traditional habitat, which has ranged from Argentina in the south to Rio de Janeiro in the north, and its lack of cannibalistic tendencies.

(C)     In distinguishing between the indigenous Indian tribe, the Guarani, and the Tupi, are their use of the Guarani language, their traditional habitat, which has ranged from Argentina in the south to Rio de Janeiro in the north and the absence of cannibalistic tendencies.

(D)    What distinguishes the indigenous Indian tribe, the Guarani, and the Tupi, are the use of the Guarani language, their traditional habitat and its range from Argentina in the south to Rio de Janeiro in the north, and their lack of cannibalistic tendencies.

(E)     What distinguishes the indigenous Indian tribe, the Guarani, from the Tupi, is the use of the Guarani language, together with a traditional habitat ranging from Argentina in the south to Rio de Janeiro in the north and lacking cannibalistic tendencies.

Questions 23 through 26 refer to the following passage:

At the beginning of the sixteenth century, the populations of Europe west of Russia and the Balkan Peninsula, mostly belonged to the Christian Church - either the Roman Catholic or Greek Catholic branches, which had existed since the eleventh century. Because of its efficient organization, this Western Church had thrived over the centuries, maintaining its unity with little dissention throughout the Middle Ages.However, that unity disassembled in an ecclesiastical revolt led by Martin Luther which resulted in a permanent division of the church. The movement started out as a protest against what Luther considered improper practices of the church. As a monk who had been consecrated a priest, Luther objected particularly to the role of indulgences, certificates that were said to shorten one's time in purgatory. Luther found no authority in scripture for such a practice. The Ninety-Five Theses that he displayed in Wittenburg on 31 October 1517 began with "When our Lord and Master Jesus Christ said 'Repent', he willed the entire life of believers to be one of repentance." To Luther it was necessary to understand the shame, horror, pain, and helplessness of an execution to understand the Divine power that made heaven and earth. To the Protestants who were to follow his lead, these theses were exhortations to martyrdom.

Although it was never his intention to "rent the seamless robe of Christ" and form a new denomination, the breach between his views and those of his opponents soon became so wide, compromise was impossible. Luther was a prolific writer who took advantage of Gutenberg's invention of the printing press to publish books, hymnals, and English translations of parts of the New Testament. Pope Leo X excommunicated Luther in 1520. A year later, Emperor Charles V declared Luther an outlaw and his life forfeited. Charles, however, was too preoccupied with warfare and other concerns to enforce his edict. Lutheranism was left to expand in the North German states and Scandinavian countries.

Soon after Luther started his revolt in the church, Ulrich Zwingli of Zurich, Switzerland began to attack the authority of Rome. Zwingli's views, which were very much in agreement with Luther's on most points of doctrine and practice, were readily accepted. In a short time, several Swiss cantons had thrown off their allegiance to the old church.In 1536, John Calvin, a Frenchman, took charge of the reform movement in Geneva. He was the ablest writer among the early Protestant theologians. His great theological treatise, "The Institutes of the Christian Religion," was regarded by his Catholic opponents as the "Koran of the Heretics." Owing largely to his exceptionally logical mind and the fine literary quality of his writings, John Calvin became the great moral and religious teacher of our ancestors. His works became accepted as a correct formulation of Protestant doctrines.

Lutheran books first appeared in England in 1521. At Cambridge, the future center of Puritan academic thought, proselytizers emerged to extol the virtues of a purified faith while denouncing what they saw to be the corruption of the Roman Catholic church. The small minority that professed the Protestant faith were ardent in their beliefs and willing to accept martyrdom in accordance with Lutheran doctrine. As their numbers grew, church condemnation of their heresies intensified. For nearly two centuries English and European people were to be divided along religious lines, with both Protestants and Catholics committing horrible crimes against one another in the name of The Prince of Peace. Their fortunes shifted with each successive rein, as their rulers followed their own religious convictions and sought to impose them on their subjects.

23. The primary purpose of the passage is to:

 

(A)     dispel a popular misconception about the origins of the modern Christian church

(B)     discuss a theory about the motives behind the "ecclesiastical revolt" led by Martin Luther

(C)     report on a recent study that portrays an historical event in a new context

(D)    describe events that led to the break-up of the western Christian church

(E)     identify the root causes of disagreements of faith between Catholics and Protestants

24. It can be inferred from the text that Martin Luther disagreed with the Christian church of his time with regards to:

 

(A)     the interpretation of holy scripture

(B)     the moral authority of the Pope to dictate religious practices

(C)     belief in the existence of Purgatory

(D)    the necessity of execution to be close to God

(E)     the right of believers to freedom of expression

25. In the context of the passage, the phrase to "rent the seamless robe of Christ", most closely corresponds to which of the following phrases?

 

(A)     to wear the perfect clothes of Christianity

(B)     to hire the ideals of Christ on a false pretext

(C)     to divide the Christian church

(D)    to pretend to be as perfect as Christ himself

(E)     to disagree with the teachings of Christ

26. The author would most likely agree with which of the following?

 

(A)     Luther was wrong to cause a split in the Christian church

(B)     The ruling monarchs of the time were very influential in determining the success and popularity of the different Christian denominations

(C)     John Calvin took many of his teachings from the Koran and the Muslim faith

(D)    Protestants had a greater belief in the power of martyrdom than their Roman Catholic counterparts

(E)     Without the invention of the printing press, the Christian church would never have split into two

27. A mixture of formaldehyde and concentrated sulfuric acid, Marquis Reagent is a simple spot test to presumptively identify alkaloids as well as other compounds.

 

(A)     A mixture of formaldehyde and concentrated sulfuric acid, Marquis Reagent is a simple spot test to presumptively identify alkaloids as well as other compounds.

(B)     Composed of a mixture of both formaldehyde and concentrated sulfuric acid, and used to identify other compounds, Marquis Reagent is a simple spot test to presumptively identify alkaloids.

(C)     Marquis Reagent is a simple spot test to identify presumptive alkaloids and other compounds, and is a mixture of formaldehyde with concentrated sulfuric acid.

(D)    Marquis Reagent is a simple spot test used for identifying alkaloids presumptively together with other compounds and is a mixture of formaldehyde and concentrated sulfuric acid.

(E)     Marquis Reagent, which is a mixture of formaldehyde with concentrated sulfuric acid, is a spot test used to presumptively identify alkaloids, and can also be used to identify other compounds.

28. With a recession looming and sales under pressure, car manufacturing company X is extending the credit terms on loans for new car purchases, with the maximum loan period rising to 72 months from 60 months.

    Which of the following, if true, would support the company's conclusion that extending the credit terms will help protect sales?

 

(A)     The company's new car models coming out in the next few years will appeal to a wide segment of the market.

(B)     The re-sale value of company X's cars is higher than that of similarly priced models of its rivals.

(C)     Many financial institutions are expected to tighten the criteria for consumer lending.

(D)    The advertising campaign informing potential customers of the new deal emphasizes the extended repayment terms.

(E)     Customers considering buying a new car through long term financing don't typically own more than one car.

29. Company Y is a medium sized oil producer specializing in advanced extraction techniques. Because the technology it uses is highly sophisticated, and more expensive than standard techniques, it requires the price of crude oil to be at least $85 per barrel in order for it to make a profit. Company Y has just discovered the largest oil field in its history to which it has exclusive rights to drill and produce oil. Although it is in a location that is difficult to access, with the current crude oil price being $90 per barrel, it believes that the new field will be profitable.

    Which of the following is an assumption on which Company Y's argument depends?

 

(A)     The news of the discovery won't stimulate other companies to look for oil.

(B)     The discovery of such a large oil field won't drive down the market price for oil.

(C)     The government won't raise taxes on the sale of petroleum at gas stations.

(D)    That the oil is of sufficient quality that it can be exported.

(E)     Other, larger companies are not better positioned to extract the oil from this field more cheaply than Company Y can.

30. Much praise has been showered on the allied forces which stormed the beaches in Normandy on June 6, 1944, and rightly so, but many historians ultimately suggested the main reason for the Third Reich failing in its plan for conquering Europe being its ill-fated decision in breaking the treaty with Stalin and creating a new eastern front of the war.

 

(A)     Much praise has been showered on the allied forces which stormed the beaches in Normandy on June 6, 1944, and rightly so, but many historians ultimately suggested the main reason for the Third Reich failing in its plan for conquering Europe being its ill-fated decision in breaking the treaty with Stalin and creating a new, eastern front of the war.

(B)     It is right that much praise be showered on the allied forces that stormed the beaches of Normandy on June 6, 1944, yet many historians are ultimately suggesting the main reason for the Third Reich in failing with its plan for conquering Europe to be the ill-fated decision to break the treaty with Stalin, thus creating a new eastern front of the war.

(C)     While many have rightly praised the allied forces storming of the beaches in Normandy on June 6, 1944, ultimately many historians suggest the main reason for the Third Reich in failing with a plan for conquering Europe is their ill-fated decision that broke the treaty with Stalin and created an eastern, new front of the war.

(D)    Although much praise has rightly been showered on the allied forces who stormed the beaches at Normandy on June 6, 1944, many historians suggest that ultimately the main reason that the Third Reich failed in its plan to conquer Europe was the ill-fated decision to break the treaty with Stalin and create a new, eastern front to the war.

(E)     Even though much praise has been showered on the rightly allied forces storming the beaches at Normandy on June 6, 1944, many historians suggest ultimately the main reason that the Third Reich failed in their plan to conquer Europe was their ill-fated decision to break their treaty with Stalin and to create an eastern new front of the war.